Hi All,
As a bit of background - when I was a student I realised I could open a current account with smile (cooperative bank) with a £500 Interest Free overdraft.
At the time I saw this as magical - and even better that they let me open 3 of these accounts.
In July 2010, smile wrote to me informing me that I had broken the t&cs of the account and that my overdraft facility had been withdrawn and I was required to repay the full overdraft amount £500 (on all 3 accounts).
I couldn't repay the amounts in full immediately, so agreed to pay off £30/month on each account (£90/month in total) until the balances were paid off.
In agreeing to this payment plan, I received multiple letters from smile indicating that a default would be applied to my credit report on each of the accounts.
I have recently looked at my credit report with Equifax, and I notice that these three accounts do not show as ever having a default, but that from July 10 to Dec 11, the status is marked as "AP".
I thought this was a bit of a bonus as for the last couple of years I had assumed I had 3 defaults on my credit report and so would be very unlikely to get any credit at all, I have never seen any advice/warnings about APs, only defaults, ccjs and bankruptcy.
I have now graduated, am working and earning a reasonable salary and would like to start thinking about a mortgage.
My questions are:
1. How much of an impact will "Agreements to pay" (related to 3 accounts for a period of about 18months (July10 - Dec 11)) affect any credit applications, and specifically if I am going to start looking at mortgage applications will I have any chance of being accepted or is the "AP" as bad as a default or ccj??
2. If I need to wait until the APs have dropped off my credit report, will I wait 6 years from the start of the AP (July 10) or is it 6 years from the end of the AP (Dec 11)
3. Are these correctly applied as "APs", my understanding is that an AP is an agreement to pay a lower amount that the total debt. In my case I repaid the full balance on all 3 overdrafts over 18 months, not a reduced amount. (I seem to remember a conversation about interest being frozen on the balances which may be correct, but as the overdrafts were interest free I'm not sure - I would have to dig out all the letters etc for details)
Thanks in advance for all your inputs and advice!!!
As a bit of background - when I was a student I realised I could open a current account with smile (cooperative bank) with a £500 Interest Free overdraft.
At the time I saw this as magical - and even better that they let me open 3 of these accounts.
In July 2010, smile wrote to me informing me that I had broken the t&cs of the account and that my overdraft facility had been withdrawn and I was required to repay the full overdraft amount £500 (on all 3 accounts).
I couldn't repay the amounts in full immediately, so agreed to pay off £30/month on each account (£90/month in total) until the balances were paid off.
In agreeing to this payment plan, I received multiple letters from smile indicating that a default would be applied to my credit report on each of the accounts.
I have recently looked at my credit report with Equifax, and I notice that these three accounts do not show as ever having a default, but that from July 10 to Dec 11, the status is marked as "AP".
I thought this was a bit of a bonus as for the last couple of years I had assumed I had 3 defaults on my credit report and so would be very unlikely to get any credit at all, I have never seen any advice/warnings about APs, only defaults, ccjs and bankruptcy.
I have now graduated, am working and earning a reasonable salary and would like to start thinking about a mortgage.
My questions are:
1. How much of an impact will "Agreements to pay" (related to 3 accounts for a period of about 18months (July10 - Dec 11)) affect any credit applications, and specifically if I am going to start looking at mortgage applications will I have any chance of being accepted or is the "AP" as bad as a default or ccj??
2. If I need to wait until the APs have dropped off my credit report, will I wait 6 years from the start of the AP (July 10) or is it 6 years from the end of the AP (Dec 11)
3. Are these correctly applied as "APs", my understanding is that an AP is an agreement to pay a lower amount that the total debt. In my case I repaid the full balance on all 3 overdrafts over 18 months, not a reduced amount. (I seem to remember a conversation about interest being frozen on the balances which may be correct, but as the overdrafts were interest free I'm not sure - I would have to dig out all the letters etc for details)
Thanks in advance for all your inputs and advice!!!
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