I have one default already(Marbles) dated Aug 2010 on my Equifax and CallCredit credit reference files (doesn't show at all on Experian though). I actually then part-satisfied that debt by paying £6K in 2011 (having read AAD forums that was probably a waste of money).
However, I am now threatened with another default on an old Goldfish/Barclays credit card. It is unenforceable as I have formally requested a copy of the CCA and they have acknowledged in writing they don't have it. I was paying them on an AP until 6 months ago but then I stopped paying. Their DCA (Credit Solutions) has now agreed that I can pay £2500 (out of £4420 outstanding) in F&F Settlement (I did avoid putting anything in writing to them).
My question is should I:
a) Not pay anything and hope they will default me immediately (which they have threatened) and then wait for 6 years ?
b) Pay £2500 in F&F settlement so the default hopefully starts running immediately, and also I will have part-satisfied which may be viewed more favourably by lenders than complete non-payment ?
c) Pay a lump off now and go onto an AP so that I don't get a second default on my record (bearing in mind that the existing default is already about 2.5 years ago) ?
I am erring towards doing c). This way I figure I could perhaps finally pay the whole balance off in a year or so and avoid a default. But what I need to know is HOW BAD A STAIN ON MY RECORD IS AN AP - ie in 3 years time if I've been on an AP for a while then paid it all off, would that look worse to a lender than just defaulting now on the whole thing ?
Hope my question is clear. Thank you for any advice (hopefully Niddy may be able to give me his thoughts....) IMac
However, I am now threatened with another default on an old Goldfish/Barclays credit card. It is unenforceable as I have formally requested a copy of the CCA and they have acknowledged in writing they don't have it. I was paying them on an AP until 6 months ago but then I stopped paying. Their DCA (Credit Solutions) has now agreed that I can pay £2500 (out of £4420 outstanding) in F&F Settlement (I did avoid putting anything in writing to them).
My question is should I:
a) Not pay anything and hope they will default me immediately (which they have threatened) and then wait for 6 years ?
b) Pay £2500 in F&F settlement so the default hopefully starts running immediately, and also I will have part-satisfied which may be viewed more favourably by lenders than complete non-payment ?
c) Pay a lump off now and go onto an AP so that I don't get a second default on my record (bearing in mind that the existing default is already about 2.5 years ago) ?
I am erring towards doing c). This way I figure I could perhaps finally pay the whole balance off in a year or so and avoid a default. But what I need to know is HOW BAD A STAIN ON MY RECORD IS AN AP - ie in 3 years time if I've been on an AP for a while then paid it all off, would that look worse to a lender than just defaulting now on the whole thing ?
Hope my question is clear. Thank you for any advice (hopefully Niddy may be able to give me his thoughts....) IMac
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