Hi
I don't know if anybody can advise me, please?
I had severe financial problems in 2002/3 as a result of being swindled in business and was left with lots of debt including a number of credit cards with high balances.
I agreed token payments which continued for many years. However, Morgan Stanley sold my account to C a b o t in 2008.
I requested a copy of the CCA and eventually an illegible document was produced in 2009. Subsequently, in early 2010, they commenced legal proceedings against me.
I panicked and appointed a no win no fee solicitor to defend me. They requested certain documents incl the CCA and Default Notice and the scheduled hearing was held in abeyance until this documentation was received. Nothing further happened for 2 years. From my observations, the firm of solicitors appeared to withdraw from Consumer Credit matters when it all became a little more complicated and, just before the solicitor working on my behalf left, she wrote chasing up on the case. At this point C a b o t's solicitors offered to withdraw the case and I requested that the debt be written off and recorded as settled.
C a b o t agreed and also paid my legal costs. I have a Consent Order signed by C a b o t's solicitors agreeing to accept permission to withdraw the case against me by writing off the debt.
My credit file shows the matter as settled in Oct 2012.
Now, 2 years later, I received a letter from C a b o t thanking me for my recent payment in settlement of the account and saying that they will update my credit reference entry. They also say that, if the payment is returned unpaid, the whole amount will become due for payment.
Obviously no payments have been made as the account was written off in 2012.
I am assuming that this is a spiteful and disreputable attempt to intimidate me and damage my credit rating for a further two years and possibly an attempt to resurrect the account? There have been no payments on the account for five and a half years, possibly longer.
Since they signed a consent order, is this not perhaps a breach of that order?
If anyone can offer advice or who understands what these people are trying to do, I'd be most appreciative.
Thank you
Spector
I don't know if anybody can advise me, please?
I had severe financial problems in 2002/3 as a result of being swindled in business and was left with lots of debt including a number of credit cards with high balances.
I agreed token payments which continued for many years. However, Morgan Stanley sold my account to C a b o t in 2008.
I requested a copy of the CCA and eventually an illegible document was produced in 2009. Subsequently, in early 2010, they commenced legal proceedings against me.
I panicked and appointed a no win no fee solicitor to defend me. They requested certain documents incl the CCA and Default Notice and the scheduled hearing was held in abeyance until this documentation was received. Nothing further happened for 2 years. From my observations, the firm of solicitors appeared to withdraw from Consumer Credit matters when it all became a little more complicated and, just before the solicitor working on my behalf left, she wrote chasing up on the case. At this point C a b o t's solicitors offered to withdraw the case and I requested that the debt be written off and recorded as settled.
C a b o t agreed and also paid my legal costs. I have a Consent Order signed by C a b o t's solicitors agreeing to accept permission to withdraw the case against me by writing off the debt.
My credit file shows the matter as settled in Oct 2012.
Now, 2 years later, I received a letter from C a b o t thanking me for my recent payment in settlement of the account and saying that they will update my credit reference entry. They also say that, if the payment is returned unpaid, the whole amount will become due for payment.
Obviously no payments have been made as the account was written off in 2012.
I am assuming that this is a spiteful and disreputable attempt to intimidate me and damage my credit rating for a further two years and possibly an attempt to resurrect the account? There have been no payments on the account for five and a half years, possibly longer.
Since they signed a consent order, is this not perhaps a breach of that order?
If anyone can offer advice or who understands what these people are trying to do, I'd be most appreciative.
Thank you
Spector
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