hi guys and gals,
i have a situation with sygma credit card/creation which has been handled by drydens solicitors.
back in 2009 i defaulted on the card, they did send a termination notice but no default notice, drydens took this over and after refusing to accept anything less than an arm and a kidney as monthly payment i couldnt afford thay went for a ccj, again insisting on same payment after ccj was granted even though i sent in statement of affairs which showed i could not afford that amount but court still went with it. subsiquently i was unable to pay and they then went for charging order (form j i think as its joint property but debt in my name only).
now my problem is this, sygma have been reporting this account on all credit files as not defaulted and some payments on time (when i paid what i could afford) and some 1-5 in arrears but never defaulted. now i knew eventually they would place default on the files and they have with a default date of dec 2012! the ccj was granted for this on 15/12/2010. so they have marked it defaulted two years after obtaining ccj.
my 2 questions are-
1, am i right that they cant register a default after the ccj date this should have been done prior to that date?
2 most importantly is it not illegal for them to obtain a ccj and the subsequent charging order if the account was not in default.?
any info or advice would be greatfully appreciated
i have a situation with sygma credit card/creation which has been handled by drydens solicitors.
back in 2009 i defaulted on the card, they did send a termination notice but no default notice, drydens took this over and after refusing to accept anything less than an arm and a kidney as monthly payment i couldnt afford thay went for a ccj, again insisting on same payment after ccj was granted even though i sent in statement of affairs which showed i could not afford that amount but court still went with it. subsiquently i was unable to pay and they then went for charging order (form j i think as its joint property but debt in my name only).
now my problem is this, sygma have been reporting this account on all credit files as not defaulted and some payments on time (when i paid what i could afford) and some 1-5 in arrears but never defaulted. now i knew eventually they would place default on the files and they have with a default date of dec 2012! the ccj was granted for this on 15/12/2010. so they have marked it defaulted two years after obtaining ccj.
my 2 questions are-
1, am i right that they cant register a default after the ccj date this should have been done prior to that date?
2 most importantly is it not illegal for them to obtain a ccj and the subsequent charging order if the account was not in default.?
any info or advice would be greatfully appreciated
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