Hi everyone,
It's been a while since I last posted here, mum's been v ill and I haven't been able to participate in forums like I used to!
I am hoping someone can help me. I had some debt written off in 2011 due to severe ill health (before write off I was on debt management plan). One of my creditors was a credit union with whom I had a loan (under £1000). I've been trying to get my finances sorted and when I looked through my paperwork, I didn't have any default notice from them, but they registered a default in 2011. I contacted the accounts department and asked if they could send me over a copy of the default notice and received the following reply:
"Your loan was originally defaulted on 18/08/2011 due to your DMP with CCCS, it was defaulted as the payment we were receiving from them was only a token payment and not something that would be accepted in normal circumstances. In this circumstance, a creditor does not have to provide written notice that they will be filing a default, therefore we did not issue one to you."
This doesn't really seem right to me, surely they have to issue a default notice regardless? Can anyone with a bit more knowledge than me tell me if what the creditor is saying is true?
Thanks so much for your time.
Lou
It's been a while since I last posted here, mum's been v ill and I haven't been able to participate in forums like I used to!
I am hoping someone can help me. I had some debt written off in 2011 due to severe ill health (before write off I was on debt management plan). One of my creditors was a credit union with whom I had a loan (under £1000). I've been trying to get my finances sorted and when I looked through my paperwork, I didn't have any default notice from them, but they registered a default in 2011. I contacted the accounts department and asked if they could send me over a copy of the default notice and received the following reply:
"Your loan was originally defaulted on 18/08/2011 due to your DMP with CCCS, it was defaulted as the payment we were receiving from them was only a token payment and not something that would be accepted in normal circumstances. In this circumstance, a creditor does not have to provide written notice that they will be filing a default, therefore we did not issue one to you."
This doesn't really seem right to me, surely they have to issue a default notice regardless? Can anyone with a bit more knowledge than me tell me if what the creditor is saying is true?
Thanks so much for your time.
Lou
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