Almost 6 years ago I made some without prejudice payments to a creditor who was harassing me, at that time I was aware of the statute of limitation.
Therefore, if I had not made the without prejudice payments, the debt would be statute barred.
It has now come to my attention that the law re: without prejudice payments has altered.
Can anyone confirm this and if the ruling is retrospective?
Thanxs
Therefore, if I had not made the without prejudice payments, the debt would be statute barred.
It has now come to my attention that the law re: without prejudice payments has altered.
Can anyone confirm this and if the ruling is retrospective?
Thanxs
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