Hi this question is not for me but for a disabled friend. I am not sure where it should go. I have to go out now so won't be back till later.
My friend and her ex husband had their house repossessed in 2000. This left an £11k shortfall on the mortgage. I discovered yesterday that they are still hassling them for the balance some 14 years later when there have been no payments for at least 9 years. She has been responding to their letters though when they write. Will this have caused her problems? I would have expected it to have been statue barred by now but that the DCA are just trying it on? Am I correct here in this assumption or are mortgages different. I thought the only debts that were never statue barred were taxes including VAT and child maintenance?
My friend and her ex husband had their house repossessed in 2000. This left an £11k shortfall on the mortgage. I discovered yesterday that they are still hassling them for the balance some 14 years later when there have been no payments for at least 9 years. She has been responding to their letters though when they write. Will this have caused her problems? I would have expected it to have been statue barred by now but that the DCA are just trying it on? Am I correct here in this assumption or are mortgages different. I thought the only debts that were never statue barred were taxes including VAT and child maintenance?
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