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After past experience, I am back for your assistance again.
I had a CCJ registered against me in June 2008, and was paying an agreed £1 a month between October 2008 and May 2009. Suddenly the creditor stopped accepting my payments. I tried to find out why, but got no response from them. The court told me it was a matter for me and the creditor to deal with, so where unable to assist. Maybe it was connected to the fact that they thought me clearing a £242 balance at £1 a month would result in years before it was cleared. So they "cut their losses"??? Who knows?
So in effect from May 2009, I haven't had anyone to pay my payment to, nor any contact regarding this debt.
Roll on to the end of last week, when I received a letter from another DCA asking for payment or they will look into enforcing the CCJ. I repeat, I have never been informed that the debt has been sold on etc.
That is my first point. How do I know that they are now the true owners of the debt? All I know is that it is still held by the original creditor who stopped accepting payment etc. This new DCA could be just chancing their luck for all I know.
I guess I could get confirmation in writing from this DCA that they are now the owners. But is there certain evidence etc I should be asking for? I am aware of the CCA request route for debts, but unsure whether it differs with this having a CCJ tied to it.
My second question is, can a CCJ transfer from creditor to creditor without me or indeed the court being informed? Does it transfer freely as the debt moves on from DCA to DCA? Or should this new DCA inform the court and myself etc, as in formally get the details changed to reflect change of ownership? The confusing aspect for me is how can the new DCA enforce something they are not named on, I guess.
Just to point out, I am not trying to get out of paying, I just don't want to be paying this new DCA, when I have never been informed of a change of "owner". I guess what I mean is I do not want to be paying the debt off with the new DCA, then the old on who took out the CCJ to resurface. As it is them who are named/ took out the CCJ, and who the agreement is with in writing.
It may be nothing, I also find it strange that this new DCA appears out of nowhere 15 weeks prior to this CCJ falling off my credit file. If I am correct, a CCJ doesn't become statute barred after 6 years unlike non-ccj debts. So I am not suggesting that the CCJ disappears after 6 years. It simply falls off your file after 6 years has passed since the judgement was taken. As I mentioned, mine drops off in June this year. The timing off their contact may be nothing, it just got me thinking that's all.
Many thanks in advance for any tips etc you can give, however small.
I had a CCJ registered against me in June 2008, and was paying an agreed £1 a month between October 2008 and May 2009. Suddenly the creditor stopped accepting my payments. I tried to find out why, but got no response from them. The court told me it was a matter for me and the creditor to deal with, so where unable to assist. Maybe it was connected to the fact that they thought me clearing a £242 balance at £1 a month would result in years before it was cleared. So they "cut their losses"??? Who knows?
So in effect from May 2009, I haven't had anyone to pay my payment to, nor any contact regarding this debt.
Roll on to the end of last week, when I received a letter from another DCA asking for payment or they will look into enforcing the CCJ. I repeat, I have never been informed that the debt has been sold on etc.
That is my first point. How do I know that they are now the true owners of the debt? All I know is that it is still held by the original creditor who stopped accepting payment etc. This new DCA could be just chancing their luck for all I know.
I guess I could get confirmation in writing from this DCA that they are now the owners. But is there certain evidence etc I should be asking for? I am aware of the CCA request route for debts, but unsure whether it differs with this having a CCJ tied to it.
My second question is, can a CCJ transfer from creditor to creditor without me or indeed the court being informed? Does it transfer freely as the debt moves on from DCA to DCA? Or should this new DCA inform the court and myself etc, as in formally get the details changed to reflect change of ownership? The confusing aspect for me is how can the new DCA enforce something they are not named on, I guess.
Just to point out, I am not trying to get out of paying, I just don't want to be paying this new DCA, when I have never been informed of a change of "owner". I guess what I mean is I do not want to be paying the debt off with the new DCA, then the old on who took out the CCJ to resurface. As it is them who are named/ took out the CCJ, and who the agreement is with in writing.
It may be nothing, I also find it strange that this new DCA appears out of nowhere 15 weeks prior to this CCJ falling off my credit file. If I am correct, a CCJ doesn't become statute barred after 6 years unlike non-ccj debts. So I am not suggesting that the CCJ disappears after 6 years. It simply falls off your file after 6 years has passed since the judgement was taken. As I mentioned, mine drops off in June this year. The timing off their contact may be nothing, it just got me thinking that's all.
Many thanks in advance for any tips etc you can give, however small.
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