my rate now is 4.99% which is higher that 4.24% and my current payment of £71 is less than that £82 !!!
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Originally posted by marylikes View Post
No, you can see in the screen grab. The screen grab, shows that is an incorrect calculation so i'm not sure how you arrived at that figure. So here is what you can do (that sounds impolite, i don't mean it that way at all. ):
If you're not happy with that, put their figures into this calculator, which gives a repayment of £83. So you're saying that the society and two separate online calculators are wrong, and you are right.
https://www.moneysavingexpert.com/mo...te-calculator/
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Originally posted by Still Waving View Post
"I" didn't arrive at anything. I plugged their figures into that online calculator and it produced the monthly repayment as shown in your screen grab.
If you're not happy with that, put their figures into this calculator, which gives a repayment of £83. So you're saying that the society and two separate online calculators are wrong, and you are right.
https://www.moneysavingexpert.com/mo...te-calculator/
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Originally posted by Still Waving View Post
If you're not happy with that, put their figures into this calculator, which gives a repayment of £83. So you're saying that the society and two separate online calculators are wrong, and you are right.
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Just realised something else too. Although they said from the outset they would debit an Insurance payment, thats fair enough. I suspect they've done that in later years too where it is unclear, but i'll confirm that later. In anycase, the furthering of providing this "credit" or lets call it a "sundry balance" for the Insurance is covered by the consumer credit act 1974. Not one iota of this have they complied with.
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Originally posted by Still Waving View Post
I've looked at that letter from '88, and it looks to me that they have deducted MIRAS at 20%, which is clearly wrong. An individual can make an error. I do think, though, that the 118.69 is correct at 13.5%.
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Originally posted by Still Waving View Post
Not sure if I've already answered this question re the '91 statement, as this thread is rather sprawling. In case I haven't, here goes -
In the arrears column a positive figure is a deficit and a - figure is a credit amount. The unchanging 22.64 figure is because the entries corresponding to those are the posting of interest and the Miras allowance. Your payment of 127.07 on 31/12 turned the deficit of 22.64 into a credit of 104.43 which as we said earlier was carried forward to '92.
I haven't yet tried to figure out why the arrears figure stayed the same for a number of months earlier in the year.
I now need your help more than ever. Think outside the box for a minute, is there anyway it could be exactly the opposite ?
From the 1992 statement..... i know for a fact that £305.41 is indeed a deficit as their letter in April confirms that amount ...
If it is correct that it is indeed a deficit, then this £209.35 figure is a positive that has vanished ?
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I spoke to them on the phone several times this week. Been onto the Subject Access team as i still don't have the interest rates. Not sure what the hold up is as they applied to everyone not just me so should be easy to retrieve. I also rang the number on my last letter. The letter says "the lower monthly installments did not increse your term.......... it was missed mortgage payments" It also repeated the £118.69 monthly repayment figure. I aksed the lady on the phone to use a calculator and work out the correct figure. She got a figure different to £118.69. Then she suggested there was a tax change around that time, a different rate of income tax and that may of affected it. I told her that it affected nothing, the MIRAS rate was 25% until the budget change at April 1994 when it went to 20%. She also told me, and she was very helpful, that it is just best to let it go through the Ombudsman and she told me how the whole process will work. I know that for each case the Ombudsman deals with it costs them £750. So thats a cheap option for them. I now realise that the lot is a complete gamble for them. They now know that i know something is wrong, but can i prove my case? Best outcome for them is the Ombudsman will time bar it, worst is that the Ombudsman detects an "error" looks at my missing payments and concludes i am part to blame, if so i might get some compensation if i'm lucky?
I've also chased up the Ombudsman to deal with it as an urgent case. I'm not going to give my life story here but after never suffering ill health in my life i ended up in Hospital last year for a month, and i was off work for about a further 3 months. Off the back of that they found i have a blood disorder, so i'm under Clatterbridge Cancer care for regular checks. So i have been through a rough time financially too, so i hope i will qualify as "urgent" for them to look at my case.
And finally..........i'm confident that i can prove not just a mistake, but an actual fraud by way of hiding the mistake and making me pay for it. If my assumption is correct and indeed i do prove my case, i'd struggled with the idea of working out restitution for me. Just how could the matter be put right ? So i know that my mortgage was restarted in 1993, and i've paid it since. Its almost finished. So what i have lost is the payments i made in 1989,1990,1991 and 1992 have all counted for nothing. The fraud occured when they restarted the mortgage without telling me. Them four years payments would come to roughly £5k. Thats what i lost. If i run that through a compound interest calculator at 8% i get about £45k. Then there will be the issue of compensation too. I'll make my descision after the Xmas holidays now but i don't think i'm going to wait too long for the Ombudsman , if they can't see to it quick i'll consider my options. Go to Court and go it alone or ask a Solicitor for a case appraisal and cost. I've been to Court before and done OK so i'm not an expert but i'm confident enough and not really too phased by it. In the meantime i'll just try get more evidence and understanding.
Thanks all for your help so far, i literally wouldn't of got this far without your help and encouragement.Last edited by marylikes; 18 December 2021, 11:59.
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interest rate as bad as my early right to buy from council rate 9% rate fixed in late 70s/early 80s. - normal rate 2%Last edited by The Tech Clerk; 18 December 2021, 10:55.I'm an official AAD Moderator and also a volunteer, here to help make the forum run smoothly. Any views or opinions are mine and not the official line of AAD. Similarly, any advice I have offered you is done so on an informal basis, without prejudice or liability. If in doubt seek advice from a qualified insured professional - Find a Solicitor or go to the National Probono Centre.
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Ok, got my rates through. Everything is out of kilter. I've been over them statements so many times now getting things wrong and getting things right. I've now got it all, or all most. I almost fully understand them statements now too. Problem i have now is that some stuff is either so wrong i can't fathom it or i made a mistake in my understanding. They lied, got the rate and whole set up wrong all that bit is easy. The hard bit is working out the restitution I figure if and when it gets to the ombudsman at best i may get some few grand compo. But i'm looking for a good bit more for my loss. I've engaged a registered auditor to give me a good overview of what, why , where on the account from inception until 1994. My case is there already, this will just help me determine what way i am going with my claim for restitution. £500 day rate for the auditor BTW. But i do need a proffesional opinion rather than me standing there like a loon saying "this is wrong and that is wrong". Auditor will nail key facts and i'll have it in writing to produce as solid evidence. As ever i'll keep you updated, i'm off to enjoy my xmas hols, well i will when i finish work on Friday. Pick this back up in the New Year when i'm back to it, Happy Xmas all
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Well thank you and Still Waving for some remarkable work here! Great contribution to AAD
Checking terms and calculations does require expertise and a professional auditor report is an excellent idea!
Wish you well and a Happy Christmas and New Year
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My logical mind likes to start at the beginning (which due to the conveniently "lost" years isn't possible), and work my way forwards to try to find what has gone amiss. The scattergun approach of jumping to 2015 and 2009/10 doesn't fit with that.
It's been tricky, and the late introduction of relevant info, such as the fact that there was MIRAS, and the sudden posting of the 24/8/88 offer document that shows they did calculate repayments using 12.75% to get £118.69 (though I can't make out the term of years in the copy you posted), caused calculations and discussions that needn't have taken place at all!
It's good that you've engaged an auditor to look at it, as you can show him all the documentation in order, rather than the few bits you've posted up here.
Good luck!Last edited by Still Waving; 22 December 2021, 15:38.
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Originally posted by marylikes View Post
Still Waving
I now need your help more than ever. Think outside the box for a minute, is there anyway it could be exactly the opposite ?
From the 1992 statement..... i know for a fact that £305.41 is indeed a deficit as their letter in April confirms that amount ...
If it is correct that it is indeed a deficit, then this £209.35 figure is a positive that has vanished ?
Taking their carried forward figure at end of '91 of £104.43 as a Credit balance then the early part of '92 looks like this -
Debits Jan to April 409.84 (ignore insurance, they said, it doesn't increase arrears)
~~Less Credit B/F 104.43 -
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~~~~~~~~Arrears 305.41 (No payments appear to have been made until May).
However this raises other questions.
(There is something amiss with the running total of arrears/credit during '91. as we know, but that is a different question.)
Early '91, following your Jan payment of £127.75 (which was on overpayment of 41p), the balance outstanding was £13,196.84. So adding your repayment back into the balance makes the '90 end of year balance £13,324.59, and adjusting for your 41p overpayment makes the end of year credit position £208.94.
Now, is it feasible (in round figures) that at the end of year 2 of the mortgage the balance would have reduced by approx just £50 and had a credit situation of approx £209?
What was the principal element of the monthly repayment? If all (correct) monthly repayments and the insurance had been paid (which a Credit situation would suggest), then wouldn't the principal outstanding have reduced by more than £50? Unless there was a similar case as in '91, where monies were paid on 31/12 (ie too late)?
Unfortunately the key to this lies in the missing statements.Last edited by Still Waving; 22 December 2021, 15:42.
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Still Waving Yeah, thanks for looking at this , i came to the same conclusion. There is also another anomally i tried to work out and thats when i knew i'd need proffesional help..... i got the rates through. I'll post them up at the end, but what i also noticed is that the payment for much of 1993 and 1994 was £79.68 and it stayed the same even after the loan had been re structured to a 370 month term. The original rate at the very start of the mortgage should of been 13.5% .
This will blow your mind:
Last edited by marylikes; 22 December 2021, 16:08.
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