This is not me - but question for friend of a friend.
They work in a small beauty shop, and there are two shops in different locations. The owner has decided to close the one shop - but claims the staff are not entitled to redundancy.
They have been there over two years, have not been offered the opportunity to move (other shop fully staffed anyway), and the business as such is not closing or going into liquidation.
My understanding is that the staff are entitled to redundancy pay as this is effectively what is happening. Is this correct?
They work in a small beauty shop, and there are two shops in different locations. The owner has decided to close the one shop - but claims the staff are not entitled to redundancy.
They have been there over two years, have not been offered the opportunity to move (other shop fully staffed anyway), and the business as such is not closing or going into liquidation.
My understanding is that the staff are entitled to redundancy pay as this is effectively what is happening. Is this correct?
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