Re: ~HFO Capital Limited -v- Robinson
It is nevertheless difficult to understand how an agreement might not be repudiated by assigning it to a party that could not lawfully perform that contract.
The following is an artificial and wholly imaginary case, poorly and inexpertly constructed by me to illustrate the point.
First of all, though, I would separate the two choses being assigned - the credit agreement and the right to collect such debts that had already been incurred under that agreement.
Considering only the first chose - the agreement...
Suppose that a customer A had contracted with a company B to purchase a motor-car. Before the vehicle was supplied, however, B assigns the contract to another company C which actually specialises in selling stolen motor-cars and does nothing else. As no motor-car which A might purchase from C would have good title with it (non dat quod non habet) it follows that the contract cannot lawfully be performed by C unless and until C obtains a motor-car by lawful means.
My belief is that the contract to supply a motor-car would have been repudiated - or would have become void - upon the assignment of the contract from B to C.
Your belief seems to be (if I have understood you correctly) that, if C were subsequently to trade lawfully or were to assign the contract to another company D that was already trading lawfully, C or D (as applicable) could then insist upon payment for the motor-car that the company would supply, or a sum in damages for breach of contract.
Originally posted by Paul.
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The following is an artificial and wholly imaginary case, poorly and inexpertly constructed by me to illustrate the point.
First of all, though, I would separate the two choses being assigned - the credit agreement and the right to collect such debts that had already been incurred under that agreement.
Considering only the first chose - the agreement...
Suppose that a customer A had contracted with a company B to purchase a motor-car. Before the vehicle was supplied, however, B assigns the contract to another company C which actually specialises in selling stolen motor-cars and does nothing else. As no motor-car which A might purchase from C would have good title with it (non dat quod non habet) it follows that the contract cannot lawfully be performed by C unless and until C obtains a motor-car by lawful means.
My belief is that the contract to supply a motor-car would have been repudiated - or would have become void - upon the assignment of the contract from B to C.
Your belief seems to be (if I have understood you correctly) that, if C were subsequently to trade lawfully or were to assign the contract to another company D that was already trading lawfully, C or D (as applicable) could then insist upon payment for the motor-car that the company would supply, or a sum in damages for breach of contract.
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