I have (had) a 15 year old Lloyds overdraft, it's never been sold so still with Lloyds and I have been repaying through DMP for 10+ years. I wanted to SAR them as part of my info gathering exercise on all my debts.
I completed a SAR on the Lloyds webpage. While there I noticed a PPI form. Now I am absolutely categorically positive I have never had PPI but what harm can it do to fill in the form?
The day after my SAR request, Lloyds sell the debt. At the time it made me really angry. What have they got to hide, why now etc?
A month passed and it turns out I did have PPI on a loan nearly 30 years ago and I'm owed about £2k.
If Lloyds still had the OD, the PPI payment would be automatically put towards the debt. However since they sold the debt the day after the SAR I have just received a £2k cheque which I can now use to offer a reduced F&F, hopefully pay off the OD and have some left for Christmas.
So thanks for selling the account Lloyds. I still have no idea why after all this time but your timing could not have been better.
I completed a SAR on the Lloyds webpage. While there I noticed a PPI form. Now I am absolutely categorically positive I have never had PPI but what harm can it do to fill in the form?
The day after my SAR request, Lloyds sell the debt. At the time it made me really angry. What have they got to hide, why now etc?
A month passed and it turns out I did have PPI on a loan nearly 30 years ago and I'm owed about £2k.
If Lloyds still had the OD, the PPI payment would be automatically put towards the debt. However since they sold the debt the day after the SAR I have just received a £2k cheque which I can now use to offer a reduced F&F, hopefully pay off the OD and have some left for Christmas.
So thanks for selling the account Lloyds. I still have no idea why after all this time but your timing could not have been better.
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