Originally posted by Never-In-Doubt
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So if a DCA banks my postal order that's a tacit acceptance for the responsibiity for my s.78 request on behalf of the creditor? That probably explains why AIC have a habit of sending back the PO once they've checked with the client that no CCA exists Sorry Niddy you've probably already explained this a million times, but does that DCA remain responsible for the s.78 request even after the account has been sent back to the creditor and reallocated to a whole load of new DCAs?




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