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  • Never-In-Doubt
    replied
    Re: Late Payment Marker removal

    Originally posted by caspar View Post
    The problem here though surely is that the theory is backed by the law "the person on whom the obligation to process the data is imposed by or under that enactment is for the purposes of this Act the data controller."
    See below!

    Originally posted by caspar View Post
    Look at it this way. Does the bank HAVE to process the data to the CRA? No it doesn't. Does the CRA HAVE to process the data given it by the bank if asked to? Yes, it does.
    You authorise the bank to use your data and to share it. The CRA does not have to process data at all, they can refuse. Lenders have to confirm to strict guidelines set by the CRA's before the CRA will process the data, part of that guidance is monthly update feeds. Point here is, they lender and CRA's "should" work together to ensure the data is correct. A lender may refuse to remove an entry, so you threaten the CRA with libel (as they are processing the incorrect/disputed data) - the CRA can then remove it, if they feel that you may be right and the lender is being unreasonable.

    The CRA does NOT have to process anything.

    Originally posted by caspar View Post
    Don't get me wrong. I've just fought an 8 year battle with the DWP over elements of the DPA (and won!). I do not deny for one minute that the reality is that only the bank will give the CRA permission to remove information, BUT that does not mean it is right. It means it's what happens, but the law, as Niddy acknowledges in his theory and reality statements, has the CRA as the data controller (possibly jointly liable).
    And I successfully sued both the biggie CRA's - they settled out of court as data processers - the data controller did not attempt to back the CRA's and I figure the CRA's thought sod this, we'll remove it before presedent was set!

    Originally posted by caspar View Post
    By the way - I'm not ignoring responses, certain things mean I need to take a bit of time out in the afternoon DS and Niddy know what I'm on about, but will be back later.
    Understood, take care - chat laters....

    Leave a comment:


  • Gerry
    replied
    Re: Late Payment Marker removal

    Originally posted by Never-In-Doubt View Post
    Who was it, me?

    Guilty Party.......

    http://forums.all-about-debt.co.uk/s...62&postcount=2

    Leave a comment:


  • caspar
    replied
    Re: Late Payment Marker removal

    Originally posted by Never-In-Doubt View Post

    In theory, the CRA's would be jointly liable as follows:

    Data Subject = Lenders
    Data Processor = CRA's
    Data Controller = CRA's

    However, to us (the customer of the lender) it is as follows

    Data Subject = You - the customer
    Data Processor = The CRA's on behalf of their data subject, as above, the lender
    Data Controller = Your Bank - the lender
    The problem here though surely is that the theory is backed by the law "the person on whom the obligation to process the data is imposed by or under that enactment is for the purposes of this Act the data controller."

    Look at it this way. Does the bank HAVE to process the data to the CRA? No it doesn't. Does the CRA HAVE to process the data given it by the bank if asked to? Yes, it does.

    Don't get me wrong. I've just fought an 8 year battle with the DWP over elements of the DPA (and won!). I do not deny for one minute that the reality is that only the bank will give the CRA permission to remove information, BUT that does not mean it is right. It means it's what happens, but the law, as Niddy acknowledges in his theory and reality statements, has the CRA as the data controller (possibly jointly liable).

    By the way - I'm not ignoring responses, certain things mean I need to take a bit of time out in the afternoon DS and Niddy know what I'm on about, but will be back later.
    Last edited by caspar; 28 January 2011, 14:22.

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  • Never-In-Doubt
    replied
    Re: Late Payment Marker removal

    Originally posted by Gerry View Post
    Oops found the culprit who suggested contacting ICO….
    Who was it, me?

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  • Gerry
    replied
    Re: Late Payment Marker removal

    Oops found the culprit who suggested contacting ICO….

    Think we need to move it up a scale from angels to elephants..

    Gerry x

    Leave a comment:


  • Never-In-Doubt
    replied
    Re: Late Payment Marker removal

    Enough you two! Get to the general chat thread lol....

    ---> http://forums.all-about-debt.co.uk/showthread.php?t=653

    Leave a comment:


  • The Debt Star
    replied
    Re: Late Payment Marker removal

    Originally posted by Gerry View Post
    Strict Proof thereof....
    Unbeliever!

    Leave a comment:


  • Gerry
    replied
    Re: Late Payment Marker removal

    Originally posted by The Debt Star View Post
    argh! hang on...I've just blown an angel out

    Strict Proof thereof....

    Leave a comment:


  • Never-In-Doubt
    replied
    Re: Late Payment Marker removal

    Originally posted by caspar View Post
    I'm happy to be proved wrong (total lie!!!!!!!) but can you see my argument?
    As requested mate: ---> http://forums.all-about-debt.co.uk/s...7&postcount=46

    Leave a comment:


  • The Debt Star
    replied
    Re: Late Payment Marker removal

    Originally posted by Never-In-Doubt View Post
    Mate, no matter how you look at it - the data processor is a CRA NOT a controller as they do not own the data that is why they (CRA's) always say - we'll contact the lender and if they agree to remove, we'll remove.

    Bear in mind, the name speaks volumes!

    Processor = CRA's
    Controller = Owner
    Subject = Customer
    Absolutely agree

    Leave a comment:


  • Never-In-Doubt
    replied
    Re: Late Payment Marker removal

    Originally posted by caspar View Post
    Could this not be interpreted to mean that the CRA have the obligation to process the data, so the processor in this case is the processor = data controller of CRA -ie- it is possible for the data controller and the data processor to be one and the same.

    I know I'm being deliberately awkward, but it may prove important at some stage and I find it interesting to debate the finer points of law. I'm happy to be proved wrong (total lie!!!!!!!) but can you see my argument?
    No mate, you're mis reading it totally. The processor is processing data on behalf of the controller. They are not a data controller to us, they are data controller to the people that use their services, ie the banks etc (in this case the CRA's are data processor to the customers of their data subjects, being the CRA would be data controller to the subject - subject being the bank)

    In theory, the CRA's would be jointly liable as follows:

    Data Subject = Lenders
    Data Processor = CRA's
    Data Controller = CRA's

    However, to us (the customer of the lender) it is as follows

    Data Subject = You - the customer
    Data Processor = The CRA's on behalf of their data subject, as above, the lender
    Data Controller = Your Bank - the lender
    Last edited by Never-In-Doubt; 28 January 2011, 14:03.

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  • The Debt Star
    replied
    Re: Late Payment Marker removal

    Death Star changing orbit and heading back towards Planet Niddy
    Last edited by The Debt Star; 28 January 2011, 14:05.

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  • Never-In-Doubt
    replied
    Re: Late Payment Marker removal

    Originally posted by caspar View Post
    I am totally in agreement here that the OP has not got a leg to stand on as the data processed and published is accurate so there is nothing they can do about it other than add a personal marker.

    I still think the issue of who is data controller is debateable. You know me - I won't just roll over! lol

    I think there may be a case for there being a joint data controller in the situation of CRA's, but there's also this:

    "4. Where personal data are processed only for purposes for which they are required by or under any enactment to be processed, the person on whom the obligation to process the data is imposed by or under that enactment is for the purposes of this Act the data controller."


    Could this not be interpreted to mean that the CRA have the obligation to process the data, so the processor in this case is the processor = data controller of CRA -ie- it is possible for the data controller and the data processor to be one and the same.

    I know I'm being deliberately awkward, but it may prove important at some stage and I find it interesting to debate the finer points of law. I'm happy to be proved wrong (total lie!!!!!!!) but can you see my argument?
    Mate, no matter how you look at it - the data processor is the CRA (in this case) they are NOT a controller as they do not own the data which is why they (CRA's) always say - we'll contact the lender and if they agree to remove, we'll remove.

    Bear in mind, the name speaks volumes!

    Processor = CRA's (cos they process the data on behalf of the controller)
    Controller = Owner (they own it and control it)
    Subject = Customer (you're what the above is all about!)
    Last edited by Never-In-Doubt; 28 January 2011, 14:11.

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  • Never-In-Doubt
    replied
    Re: Late Payment Marker removal

    Originally posted by The Debt Star View Post
    cifas being CRAs? or am I a rolling emotion again? lol
    CIFAS being cifas mate!

    ---> http://www.cifas.org.uk/

    Its an FPA (Fraud Prevention Agency)

    Leave a comment:


  • caspar
    replied
    Re: Late Payment Marker removal

    I am totally in agreement here that the OP has not got a leg to stand on as the data processed and published is accurate so there is nothing they can do about it other than add a personal marker.

    I still think the issue of who is data controller is debateable. You know me - I won't just roll over! lol

    I think there may be a case for there being a joint data controller in the situation of CRA's, but there's also this:

    "4. Where personal data are processed only for purposes for which they are required by or under any enactment to be processed, the person on whom the obligation to process the data is imposed by or under that enactment is for the purposes of this Act the data controller."


    Could this not be interpreted to mean that the CRA have the obligation to process the data, so the processor in this case is the processor = data controller of CRA -ie- it is possible for the data controller and the data processor to be one and the same.

    I know I'm being deliberately awkward, but it may prove important at some stage and I find it interesting to debate the finer points of law. I'm happy to be proved wrong (total lie!!!!!!!) but can you see my argument?

    Leave a comment:

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